Assume we've got 20 TPOs above the
POC and 80 TPOs below (to make the situation clearer). Obviously, the majority of value is rested below the
POC, hence we assume the short-time traders are trading on that side. The trades made on the other (top) side come as a result of the competition between the long- and short-term traders within the
value area. The short-term participants don't trade on that side (the price gets too high for them so they withdraw from the competition and go back to their region), but the latter is concidered a bargain by the long-term traders. And because the prices auctioned higher due to the competition, it must have been the long term-buyer who was responsible for that move.
Do you think this is what the author could have in mind?