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Re: Trading with Market Statistics XI. HUP
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Re: Trading with Market Statistics XI. HUP
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JERRY ---I'm going to trade til I'm 100, or die trying---- |
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Re: Trading with Market Statistics XI. HUP
5 min graph: VAH 1227.03, VAL 1210.78, VWAP 1218.91, PVP 1225.00 1 min graph: VAH 1227.07, VAL 1210.65, VWAP 1218.86, PVP 1218.75 100 tick graph: VAH 1227.06, VAL 1210.62, VWAP 1218.84, PVP 1223.25 50 tick graph: VAH 1227.06, VAL 1210.63, VWAP 1218.84, PVP 1223.0 20 tick and 10 tick graphs computations resulted in the same values as the 50 tick graph. 1 tick graph was too much for my computer to handle. You can see that while VWAP and SD's being averaged values are not much sensitive to the calculation base interval. Yet PVP being a peak level is very sensitive to any kind of averaging. For ES 50 tick data provide the base detailed enough for an accurate calculation. I realized I am unable to determine dailly PVP from 1 minute database and that brought me to alternative ways of calculation. |
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Re: Trading with Market Statistics XI. HUP
__________________
JERRY ---I'm going to trade til I'm 100, or die trying---- |
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Re: Trading with Market Statistics XI. HUP
I wonder if the fact that "The skewness of a random variable X is sometimes denoted Skew[X]. If Y is the sum of n independent random variables, all with the same distribution as X, then it can be shown that Skew[Y] = Skew[X] / √n." can be exploited to come up with a non iterative approach?
I am having trouble understanding this. Doesnt it mean that you can simply calculate the skew for the first element (which will be zero right?) and then extrapolate from that. I don't understand how that formula can be correct. Its from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skewness |
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Re: Trading with Market Statistics XI. HUP
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